Review The Social Determinants of Health and select a diagnosis and/or condition for one system/organ and discuss how social determinants of health can impact the health outcomes of that diagnosis/condition. Provide a recommendation as to how to address the impacting determinant.

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Social Determinants of Health

Review The Social Determinants of Health and select a diagnosis and/or condition for one system/organ and discuss how social determinants of health can impact the health outcomes of that diagnosis/condition. In addition, provide a recommendation as to how to address the impacting determinant. Overall this paper should be your original thoughts with only 25% direct citations. At least 3 sources are required.

What is the status of those who were newly covered? What are exchanges and how are different States approaching them? What does the Medicaid program have to do with the ACA? How have health insurance premiums been affected? What variables are in play in the political debate over the impact of the ACA on cost, access, and quality of care? What are some of the key challenges facing state and national policymakers given the current status?

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HCAD 620 GP – Changes to the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (ACA)

Since the 2016 presidential election, there have been multiple changes to the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (ACA). What are they and how have they impacted healthcare access, cost, and quality?

Questions to be addressed in your research include:
1. What is the status of those who were newly covered?
2. What are exchanges and how are different States approaching them?
3. What does the Medicaid program have to do with the ACA?
4. How have health insurance premiums been affected?
5. What variables are in play in the political debate over the impact of the ACA on cost, access, and quality of care?
6. What are some of the key challenges facing state and national policymakers given the current status?
7. On balance, has the ACA been a good or bad law?
8. Conclusion – Provide a clear, fact-based, non-emotional justification

Resources.
https://www.britannica.com/topic/Patient-Protection-and-Affordable-Care-Act/Final-passage

The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (2010) (for reference)
Nicknames: Obamacare, the Affordable Care Act, Health Insurance Reform, Healthcare Reform Enacted by: the 111th United States Congress
Statutes at Large: 124 Stat. 119 through 124 Stat. 1025 (906 pages): https://www.congress.gov/111/plaws/publ148/PLAW-111publ148.pdf

https://www.thebalance.com/obamacare-facts-9-aca-facts-that-you-dont-know-3306071

What are the Advantages of the Affordable Care Act?

https://www.healthmarkets.com/resources/health-insurance/affordable-care-act-pros-and-cons/

https://video.search.yahoo.com/yhs/search?fr=yhs-iba-syn_pdf&ei=UTF-8&hsimp=yhs-syn_pdf&hspart=iba&p=what+is+the+affordable+care+act+pros+and+cons&type=ppff_9525_FFW_ZZ#id=3&vid=978af11884134b3e9ae5294c1f8aeee2&action=click

Overview of the Affordable Care Act and Medicaid

https://www.congress.gov/bill/111th-congress/house-bill/3590/

https://video.search.yahoo.com/yhs/search?fr=yhs-iba-syn_pdf&ei=UTF-8&hsimp=yhs-syn_pdf&hspart=iba&p=patient+protection+act&type=ppff_9525_FFW_ZZ#id=3&vid=07a781007ee7433e1cbec2ef7ac99374&action=click

https://quotes.healthcare.org/obamacare/?SRC=34&theme=obamacare&pubid=network&utm_medium=cpc&utm_source=bing&utm_campaign=361666505&utm_content=be&utm_term=obama%20care%20rates&iv=__iv_p_2_a_361666505_g_1279831928136194_k_kwd-79989720369355:loc-4090_w_obama%20care%20rates_d_c_q_insurance%20premiums%20under%20obamacare_m_be_h_78857_c_79989592265927_n_o_z_3_vi__&msclkid=d1d86f61745f1e026c4b0dcacba72fb3

Identify any gaps, request information, receive feedback, and apply feedback with those changes to your final project plan.

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Stake holder analysis

The stakeholder analysis (SHA) is an exercise to understand both the formal and informal project stakeholders. This analysis is usually done as part of your project charter and scope and you may have already completed some work on this. As we move towards the end of your project plan build, it bears repeating and reanalyzing to ensure you have captured the stakeholders’ expectations.
Managing change is a critical activity of any system implementation and perceptions change through the course any project. Often what is understood as expectations for stakeholders at the outset of a project is different at the project conclusion. Ongoing “check ins” with stakeholders are key to managing expectations (and change) that is inherent with large system migrations (in this case paper to digital charting with an EHR).

Instructions
After completing the assigned readings for this module, read and complete the stakeholder analysis template Click for more options (SHA) for your project. Utilize the original case study from module 2 for your project plan and any additional information you may have acquired through communication with the instructor. The SHA will likely require you request additional information from the instructor relative to the case study. The SHA will be become part of your final project plan and will be added to your Project Charter section.

*Be sure to submit any questions to your instructor regarding any gaps in project information you may have. Your stakeholder analysis and project plan build is an iterative activity requiring you to identify any gaps, request information, receive feedback, and apply feedback with those changes to your final project plan.

CASE STUDY:
The Waverly Family Health services has decided to implement an electronic health record (EHR). They have decided to implement a web-based EHR called Practice Fusion http://www.practicefusion.com. You will need to review the website to understand about the product. You may sign up for free access to their product to learn more and answer questions you might have about the product (see also provided youtube videos about Practice Fusion).
The clinic has no prior experience implementing an EHR, but they feel assured they can accomplish a web install and system conversion (migrating from paper charts to digital content) using the skill of their staff and providers. Hardware is already provided. The following is baseline information on the clinic and project resource allocation:

Budget
The clinic acquired a small business development loan on their American Express Card business account in the amount of $40,000.00 for the entire project. This includes all startup costs, labor, training, and “unforeseen costs.”

Staff

The following is a breakdown of staff who will need EHR access and new hardware to run the EHR:
Dr. Waverly, clinic owner and medical director (*Key stakeholder)
Dr. Jones, physician and clinic partner (*Key stakeholder)
Mrs. Johnson, physician’s assistant (will function as project team member)
Mrs. Wright, MSN, NP, nurse practitioner [Project team member (has previous EHR install experience)]
Mrs. Jones, clinic director (*Key stakeholder)
Ms. Felps, front office clerk (Project team member)
Ms. Smith MA, back office medical assistant (Project team member)
Mr. Lawrence, clinic accounts and billing [Project team member (has I.T experience)]
You have 6 months to complete the project.

Environment Assessment Information:
The clinic has a high speed T-line, which provides internet access with Wi-Fi access throughout the clinic. There is ample hardware throughout the clinic. Each clinic exam room (there are 4) has a workstation consisting of a Dell “all-in-one” desktop with 8GB of ram and Intel i7 processor, and a 23-inch screen. The units are wall mounted and the monitor is on an articulated arm allowing the patient to see the screen when the clinician wants to share information. Each of the Medical Assistants (MAs), front office clerk, biller and directors have similar work stations. The workstation configurations meet the minimum standards for utilizing the web-based EHR.

Review the scoring rubric Click for more options to understand how your work will be assessed. When you have completed your assignment, submit it by clicking on the title above.

Which of the following kinds of love is something one dreams about but is difficult to sustain over time? Identify the condition in males in which the forms on the underside of the , rather than on the tip of the penis.

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Choice question

QUESTION 1

  1. For most people, anatomical sex, gender identity, and assigned gender are
a. discordant
b. ambiguous
c. congruent
d. unrelated

0.75 points   

QUESTION 2

  1. Although gender is not inherent in inanimate objects or in behaviors, we treat many objects and behaviors as if they were masculine or feminine. This cognitive organization of the world according to gender is referred to as
a. a gender bias
b. sex typing
c. a gender schema
d. gender stereotyping

0.75 points   

QUESTION 3

  1. Which of the following refers to a rigidly held, oversimplified, and overgeneralized belief about how each gender should behave?
a. gender variation
b. gender-role stereotype
c. gender identity
d. assigned gender

0.75 points   

QUESTION 4

  1. The first sign of puberty in boys is
a. the deepening of the voice
b. the growth of pubic hair
c. the growth of facial hair
d. the enlargement of the testicles

0.75 points   

QUESTION 5

  1. When the brains of love-struck men are studied, it is found that more activity exists for men in
a. the brain region that integrates visual stimuli
b. the brain region that governs memories
c. the hypothalamus
d. the amygdala

0.75 points   

QUESTION 6

  1. The assignment of gender usually occurs at birth and is usually based on
a. gender identity
b. anatomical appearance
c. behavioral genetics
d. dominant hormones

0.75 points   

QUESTION 7

  1. Diana has reached menopause. Her age is most likely to be around
a. 12 years
b. 29 years
c. 37 years
d. 51 years

0.75 points   

QUESTION 8

  1. ________ is a term that describes irrational or phobic fear of sexual minorities.
a. Agoraphobia
b. Homophobia
c. Heterophobia
d. Homophilia

0.75 points   

QUESTION 9

  1. Which of the following almost always precedes lesbian or gay activity by several years?
a. homoeroticism
b. depression
c. promiscuity
d. dissipation

0.75 points   

QUESTION 10

  1. Proximity in a relationship signifies
a. a level of intimacy
b. a level of competition
c. the couple’s level of knowledge
d. the status of a person in the relationship

0.75 points   

QUESTION 11

  1. Which of the following terms refers to a marriage in which partners mutually agree to allow sexual relationships with others?
a. open marriage
b. arranged marriage
c. consensual marriage
d. rebound marriage

0.75 points   

QUESTION 12

  1. The first sign of puberty in girls is
a. the growth of underarm hair
b. breast development
c. the secretion of vaginal mucus
d. menarche

0.75 points   

QUESTION 13

  1. How are sexual orientation and gender identity related to each other?
a. Gender identity determines sexual orientation
b. They are conceptually independent of each other
c. Sexual orientation determines gender identity
d. They are both determined by a person’s sex

0.75 points   

QUESTION 14

  1. By what age does one internalize and identify with one’s gender?
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 5 years
d. 7 years

0.75 points   

QUESTION 15

  1. A succession of marriages or relationships rather than permanence is sometimes known as
a. domestic partnership
b. open relationship
c. free union
d. serial monogamy

0.75 points   

QUESTION 16

  1. Which of the following refers to the physical sex structures of a person such as gonads, uterus, vulva, vagina, and penis?
a. genetic sex
b. gender dysphoria
c. anatomical sex
d. sexual dimorphism

0.75 points   

QUESTION 17

  1. Which of the following refers to whether one is biologically female or male?
a. sex
b. gender
c. sexual dimorphism
d. gender dysphoria

0.75 points   

QUESTION 18

  1. A sex education program in the Dakota school district goes from Kindergarten through high school. It is age-appropriate and covers a broad range of topics as well as opportunities to develop relationships and interpersonal skills and sexual responsibility. This approach is called
a. contraceptive sexuality education
b. comprehensive sexuality education
c. abstinence-only sexuality education
d. facilitative sexuality education

0.75 points   

QUESTION 19

  1. Which of the following statements is true of conflict?
a. The more intimate two people become, the less likely they are to experience conflict
b. The presence of conflict does not necessarily indicate that love is waning
c. Conflict in any form proves detrimental to a relationship
d. Conflict is the process in which people perceive what is hindering them from achieving their goals

0.75 points   

QUESTION 20

  1. Puberty is the time when a person
a. enters early adulthood
b. learns about sexuality
c. becomes capable of reproduction
d. becomes a legal adult

0.75 points   

QUESTION 21

  1. Menopause is best defined as
a. the onset of menstrual irregularities
b. the recurrent dysplasia of the cervix
c. the complete cessation of menstruation for at least a year
d. the period during which women are highly fertile

0.75 points   

QUESTION 22

  1. Virtually all health professionals consider masturbation a(n)
a. common childhood behavior
b. abnormal behavior
c. harmful behavior
d. unhealthy sexual behavior

0.75 points   

QUESTION 23

  1. The assumption that attractive people possess more desirable social characteristics than are actually present is called
a. the self-serving bias
b. the halo effect
c. the self-fulfilling prophecy
d. sexual attribution

0.75 points   

QUESTION 24

  1. In the context of love and communication in intimate relationships, the lack of sexual attraction is known as
a. sexual masochism
b. anorgasmia
c. hermaphroditism
d. asexuality

0.75 points   

QUESTION 25

  1. Which of the following statements defines the term “heteronormativity”?
a. It is a set of interrelated ideas used to organize information about the world on the basis of gender.
b. It is the belief that heterosexuality is standard, natural, and superior to all other expressions of sexuality.
c. It is the view that heterosexual men often have more female biological characteristics than homosexual men do.
d. It is a person’s internal sense or perception of being male, female, a blend of both, or neither.

0.75 points   

QUESTION 26

  1. Which of the following is NOT a change that a man can expect as he ages?
a. a longer refractory period
b. a decrease in the frequency of sexual activity
c. a slight increase in the amount of ejaculate
d. a less firm erection

0.75 points   

QUESTION 27

  1. According to the American Psychiatric Association, when a person is intensely uncomfortable and distressed with his or her biological gender and strongly identifies with, and wants to be, the other gender, that person may be said to have
a. monorchism
b. gender dysphoria
c. hypospadias
d. gonochorism

0.75 points   

QUESTION 28

  1. The human body actually begins its first sexual response
a. 6 months after birth
b. 3 years after birth
c. 13 years after birth
d. in utero

0.75 points   

QUESTION 29

  1. Which of the following statements about love is true?
a. Love is a relatively simple emotion
b. Love manifests itself in various forms across all cultures
c. Love, by strict definition, cannot occur in gay or lesbian relationships
d. Love is a feeling and not an activity

0.75 points   

QUESTION 30

  1. A person’s internal sense of being male or female is called
a. gender identity
b. genetic sex
c. assigned gender
d. a gender role

0.75 points   

QUESTION 31

  1. Which of the following terms refers to the development of sperm in the testicles of boys during puberty?
a. spermarche
b. menarche
c. spermiation
d. ejaculation

0.75 points   

QUESTION 32

  1. In recent years one of the most advanced mandated form of comprehensive sexuality education was introduced in
a. California
b. Colorado
c. Mississippi
d. Kentucky

0.75 points   

QUESTION 33

  1. The rights of unmarried adults who choose to live together in the same manner as a married couple are referred to by the concept of
a. domestic partnerships
b. serial monogamy
c. decriminalizing adultery
d. heteronormativity

0.75 points   

QUESTION 34

  1. Which of the following was found by researchers to differentiate love from friendship?
a. levels of acceptance and satisfaction
b. levels of respect and spontaneity
c. levels of fascination and exclusiveness
d. levels of trust and understanding

0.75 points   

QUESTION 35

  1. Negative attitudes and affects toward homosexuality in other persons and toward same-sex attraction in oneself are referred to as
a. heteronormativity
b. internalized homophobia
c. self-labeling
d. closeting

0.75 points   

QUESTION 36

  1. Separated or divorced men and women tend to have
a. double standards when it comes to choosing a partner when compared with never-married young adults
b. different expectations about relationships because of their previous marital experience
c. relationship expectations similar to that of never-married young adults
d. little or no expectations owing to previous marriage experiences

0.75 points   

QUESTION 37

  1. One of the problems with nonverbal communication is
a. the imprecision of its messages
b. that it does not communicate emotion
c. that there are very few ways to communicate nonverbally
d. the level of acceptance by other people

0.75 points   

QUESTION 38

  1. Which of the following kinds of love is something one dreams about but is difficult to sustain over time?
a. companionate love
b. romantic love
c. consummate love
d. fatuous love

0.75 points   

QUESTION 39

  1. Studies about masturbation in adolescence indicate that masturbation
a. is higher in females than males in all age groups
b. that males are more likely than females to view masturbation as ambiguous play
c. that the degree to which adolescents masturbate is directly correlated with whether or not they have a partner
d. that many males begin masturbating between ages 13 and 15

0.75 points   

QUESTION 40

  1. One long-term effect of the lower estrogen levels resulting from menopause is
a. cervical cancer
b. liver problems
c. osteoporosis
d. leukemia

0.75 points   

QUESTION 41

  1. According to Sternberg, which of the following is NOT an element of love?
a. arousal
b. passion
c. commitment
d. intimacy

0.75 points   

QUESTION 42

  1. A period of intense warmth, flushing, and perspiration often found in menopausal women is called
a. a hot flash
b. a power surge
c. perimenopause
d. osteoporosis

0.75 points   

QUESTION 43

  1. According to Storms’ model of sexual orientation, identify a true statement about bisexual individuals.
a. Their sexual orientation is a continuum from exclusively heterosexual to exclusively homosexual.
b. They are high on both homoeroticism and heteroeroticism dimensions.
c. Their sexual behavior pattern changes across a lifetime.
d. They are heterosexual individuals trying to be homosexual.

0.75 points   

QUESTION 44

  1. The umbrella term for those whose gender expression or identity is not congruent with the sex assigned at birth and whose gender is not validated by the dominant culture is
a. homosexual
b. cisgender
c. heterosexual
d. transgender

0.75 points   

QUESTION 45

  1. Children who engage in sex play
a. generally do so with children of their own sex
b. are likely to have an unintended pregnancy in the future
c. are likely to become sexually active in early teen years
d. should be seen by a therapist as this is a matter of concern

0.75 points   

QUESTION 46

  1. A person who combines the trait of instrumentality traditionally associated with masculinity with the trait of expressiveness traditionally associated with femininity could be described as
a. borderline masculine
b. feminine
c. androgynous
d. a latent homosexual

0.75 points   

QUESTION 47

  1. Match each condition to it’s corresponding description.  Note: there is only one correct answer for each.
         –           A.           B.           C.           D.           E. Robyn has no ovaries, but her external genitals are those of a normal female. As she grows up, her body remains short, she does not develop a mature feminine physique, and she does not menstruate.
         –           A.           B.           C.           D.           E. Andrea was born female, and raised as a girl. As an adult, she is unable to conceive with her partner. A medical examination reveals that she has the genetic makeup of a man and lacks a uterus; resulting in infertility.
         –           A.           B.           C.           D.           E. Aaron is born with a rare condition where his genitals cannot be clearly categorized as male or female. His doctor observes that he lacks a hormone called dihydrotestosterone and is infertile.
         –           A.           B.           C.           D.           E. Jordan was born female. However, she does not develop any secondary female characteristics during puberty. She lacks breasts, has abnormal menstrual periods and excessive facial hair growth. Internally, she has a pair of ovaries and a vagina, but externally she develops as a male.
         –           A.           B.           C.           D.           E. Lucas was born male. During puberty he became self-conscious when he noticed that his body was not undergoing the same changes as his peers. He lacked facial, pubic and underarm hair, and his penis and testicles remained small. A medical analysis discovered that he had an additional X chromosome.
A. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
B. Klinefelter syndrome
C. 5-alpha reductase deficiency
D. Androgen insensitivity syndrome
E. Turner syndrome

5 points   

QUESTION 48

  1. According to Sternberg, all of the following are signs of intimacy EXCEPT
a. valuing one’s partner’s presence in one’s life
b. sharing oneself and one’s possessions with one’s partner
c. providing emotional support to one’s partner
d. sacrificing oneself for one’s partner

0.75 points   

QUESTION 49

  1. Identify the condition in males in which the urethral opening forms on the underside of the penis or scrotum, rather than on the tip of the penis.
a. hypospadias
b. transvestism
c. bladder exstrophy
d. testicular dysgenesis syndrome

0.75 points   

QUESTION 50

  1. Jealousy in a relationship is often related to personal feelings of
a. love
b. commitment
c. devotion
d. insecurity

0.75 points   

QUESTION 51

  1. According to Helen Fisher, which of the following chemicals has been found to stimulate feelings of attraction?
a. dopamine
b. acetylcholine
c. gamma-aminobutyric acid
d. glutamate

0.75 points   

QUESTION 52

  1. Precocious puberty
a. is normally inherited from mother to son
b. is less commonly found in boys than in girls
c. signifies an underlying medical problem in girls
d. occurs mostly in children of color

0.75 points   

QUESTION 53

  1. Menarche is
a. another name for the growth spurt that occurs during puberty
b. the onset of menstruation
c. a term for painful menstrual cramps
d. the absence of menstruation

0.75 points   

QUESTION 54

  1. Those with disorders of sexual development (DSD) are also referred to as
a. transsexuals
b. sexually fluid
c. bisexuals
d. intersex

0.75 points   

QUESTION 55

  1. Making eye contact with another person, if only for a split second longer than usual, is a signal of
a. fear
b. threat
c. hatred
d. interest

0.75 points   

QUESTION 56

  1. A sex education program in the Davis school district emphasizes staying away from all kinds of sexual behaviors until marriage. This program excludes all types of sexual and reproductive health education. This is curriculum is called
a. facilitative sexuality education
b. comprehensive sexuality education
c. developmental sexuality education
d. abstinence-only sexuality education

0.75 points   

QUESTION 57

  1. Oftentimes gay and lesbian individuals report that they became aware of their difference in
a. late adulthood
b. early childhood
c. middle or late childhood
d. late adolescence

0.75 points   

QUESTION 58

  1. Which of the following refers to the gender given by others, usually at birth?
a. genetic sex
b. gender identity
c. anatomical sex
d. assigned gender

0.75 points   

QUESTION 59

  1. Publicly acknowledging one’s homosexual orientation is called
a. outing
b. self-labeling
c. closeting
d. coming out

0.75 points   

QUESTION 60

  1. Which of the following processes causes people to reveal themselves to their partners and may even lead them to learn about themselves?
a. appraisal
b. flirting
c. feedback
d. self-disclosure

0.75 points   

QUESTION 61

  1. Which of the following is a behavior of sexually healthy adults?
a. respecting only those sexual orientations that one approves
b. enjoying sexual feelings by always acting on them
c. seeking prenatal care only if deemed extremely necessary
d. expressing love and intimacy in appropriate ways

0.75 points   

 

Part 2

 

QUESTION 1

  1. A pejorative term used to describe abnormal or excessive sexual desire in a woman is
a. satyriasis
b. psychosis
c. nymphomania
d. anodyspareunia

0.75 points   

QUESTION 2

  1. The key constitutional issue that enters the abortion debate is ________
a. the right to privacy
b. what is considered the point at which human life actually begins
c. whether the husband or the wife has the greater right to decide cases of abortion
d. the right of free speech

0.75 points   

QUESTION 3

  1. ________ is usually defined as the spontaneous expulsion of the fetus before the 20th week of pregnancy
a. A miscarriage
b. A stillbirth
c. Endometriosis
d. Preeclampsia

0.75 points   

QUESTION 4

  1. Traditionally, physicians calculate the first day of pregnancy as ________
a. the last day of the menstrual period plus 5 days
b. the date of last intercourse
c. the date of the beginning of the last menstrual period
d. 14 days after the previous menstrual period

0.75 points   

QUESTION 5

  1. Spermicides are available in all of the following forms EXCEPT ________
a. foam
b. gel
c. patch
d. film

0.75 points   

QUESTION 6

  1. Coitus is another name for
a. fellatio
b. cunnilingus
c. masturbation
d. sexual intercourse

0.75 points   

QUESTION 7

  1. Intrauterine devices (IUDs) work ________
a. by preventing sperm from entering the uterus
b. by releasing a spermicidal agent into the vagina
c. by expelling semen from the vagina
d. by thickening cervical mucus so implantation cannot take place

0.75 points   

QUESTION 8

  1. Scott is a gay man who cross-dresses to entertain. Scott could be called a
a. dominatrix
b. male impersonator
c. drag queen
d. faux queen

0.75 points   

QUESTION 9

  1. Select the correct paraphilia that corresponds with the following definitions.
         –           A.           B.           C.           D.           E.           F.           G.           H. Sexual pleasure derived from receiving enemas
         –           A.           B.           C.           D.           E.           F.           G.           H. Sexual pleasure derived from animals
         –           A.           B.           C.           D.           E.           F.           G.           H. Sexual pleasure derived from contact with urine
         –           A.           B.           C.           D.           E.           F.           G.           H. Sexual pleasure derived from contact with feces
         –           A.           B.           C.           D.           E.           F.           G.           H. Exclusive attraction to body parts
         –           A.           B.           C.           D.           E.           F.           G.           H. Sexual activity with a corpse
         –           A.           B.           C.           D.           E.           F.           G.           H. Sexual pleasure derived from inflicting physical or psychological harm, including humiliation, upon another person
         –           A.           B.           C.           D.           E.           F.           G.           H. Sexual pleasure derived from being humiliated, beaten, bound, or otherwise made to suffer
A. necrophilia
B. coprophilia
C. sexual masochism
D. zoophilia
E. klismaphilia
F. sexual sadism
G. urophilia
H. partialism

8 points   

QUESTION 10

  1. In the context of the development of the conceptus, the ________ serves as a biochemical barrier, allowing dissolved substances to pass to the fetus but blocking some kinds of viruses and bacteria from passing into the fetal circulatory system
a. placenta
b. endometrium
c. umbilical cord
d. fallopian tube

0.75 points   

QUESTION 11

  1. In the context of the development of the conceptus, the placenta is attached to the fetus by the ________
a. fallopian tube
b. umbilical cord
c. endometrium
d. cervix

0.75 points   

QUESTION 12

  1. Transvestism is distinct from transsexualism in that people with transvestism
a. usually have no desire to undergo a sex-change operation
b. tend to shun transsexuals
c. are in an early stage of transsexualism
d. are frequently diagnosed with gender dysphoria

0.75 points   

QUESTION 13

  1. If a woman misses one of her pills, she should ________
a. not worry about it
b. take two pills immediately to catch up and stay on schedule
c. take one as soon as she remembers and the next one on schedule
d. not have intercourse for 2 months

0.75 points   

QUESTION 14

  1. Which of the following of the McCarthys’ sexual styles is considered to be the most predictable and stable style?
a. complementary
b. traditional
c. soulmate
d. emotionally expressive

0.75 points   

QUESTION 15

  1. All of the following are barrier methods of birth control EXCEPT ________
a. condoms
b. diaphragms
c. the sponge
d. the pill

0.75 points   

QUESTION 16

  1. How soon after unprotected intercourse should Plan B One-Step emergency contraception pill be administered for effectiveness?
a. 1 day
b. 2 days
c. 5 days
d. 1 week

0.75 points   

QUESTION 17

  1. Which is the correct sequence of development for a fertilized ovum?
a. zygote, blastocyst, embryo, fetus
b. blastocyst, zygote, fetus, embryo
c. zygote, blastocyst, fetus, embryo
d. blastocyst, zygote, embryo, fetus

0.75 points   

QUESTION 18

  1. Which of these is NOT a barrier method?
a. NuvaRing
b. the female condom
c. Today Sponge
d. the diaphragm

0.75 points   

QUESTION 19

  1. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of pedophiles?
a. They have recurrent, intense, and arousing sexual fantasies involving children
b. They are required to be over 16 years and at least 5 years older than the targeted child
c. They feel distressed about or act upon sexual fantasies involving children
d. They have sexual interests that are limited to little girls only

0.75 points   

QUESTION 20

  1. Which of the following of the McCarthys’ sexual styles is considered to be the “perfect” style?
a. complementary
b. traditional
c. soulmate
d. emotionally expressive

0.75 points   

QUESTION 21

  1. A low-birth-weight infant usually weighs less than ________ pounds at birth
a. 3.75
b. 7
c. 5.5
d. 2

0.75 points   

QUESTION 22

  1. In the context of touching between couples, which of the following is true of kissing in a relationship?
a. The higher the frequency of kissing, the greater the relationship quality
b. The lower the frequency of kissing, the higher the frequency of sexual intercourse
c. The lower the frequency of kissing, the lower the drive for sexual arousal
d. The higher the frequency of kissing, the lower the relationship satisfaction

0.75 points   

QUESTION 23

  1. A person who enjoys all kinds of sexual expressions, has a positive attitude toward sexual activities, is comfortable talking about sex, and uses contraception responsibly would most likely
a. live by a variant sexual script
b. be very physically attractive
c. score high on a measure of erotophobia
d. score high on a measure of erotophilia

0.75 points   

QUESTION 24

  1. The ________ stage of labor is usually the longest
a. first
b. second
c. third
d. fourth

0.75 points   

QUESTION 25

  1. If a baby is healthy, the Apgar score will range ________
a. between 4 and 6
b. between 2 and 5
c. between 11 and 12
d. between 7 and 10

0.75 points   

QUESTION 26

  1. The first sign that a pregnant woman may miscarry is ________
a. a painful swelling of the breasts
b. severe nausea
c. vaginal bleeding
d. a softening of the uterus just above the cervix

0.75 points   

QUESTION 27

  1. After ovulation, an oocyte remains viable in the female body for ________
a. 72 hours
b. 30–48 hours
c. 12–24 hours
d. 6–10 hours

0.75 points   

QUESTION 28

  1. Barrier methods are primarily designed to ________
a. inhibit capacitation of the sperm
b. maintain regularity of menstrual cycles
c. keep sperm and egg from uniting
d. cause spontaneous abortion of the fertilized ovum

0.75 points   

QUESTION 29

  1. Tubal pregnancy is also known as ________ pregnancy
a. ectopic
b. endometrial
c. peripheral
d. fallopian

0.75 points   

QUESTION 30

  1. Once a woman stops taking the pill after childbirth, her menstrual cycle will usually resume ________
a. in about 1 year
b. within 2 months
c. within 2 days after taking the last pill
d. in 6 to 8 months

0.75 points   

QUESTION 31

  1. According to the Guttmacher Institute (2017), what percentage of unintended pregnancies were terminated by abortion in the United States?
a. about 10%
b. about 25%
c. about 40%
d. about 80%

0.75 points   

QUESTION 32

  1. The most common sexual objects of individuals diagnosed with pedophilic disorder are
a. prepubescent girls
b. prepubescent boys
c. postpubescent girls
d. postpubescent boys

0.75 points   

QUESTION 33

  1. Nausea and vomiting often occur during the ________ trimester
a. first
b. second
c. third
d. fourth

0.75 points   

QUESTION 34

  1. The combination of the calendar, cervical mucus, and the basal body methods is called the ________
a. barrier method
b. ovulation method
c. symptothermal method
d. rhythm method

0.75 points   

QUESTION 35

  1. After giving birth, a woman may experience a “fourth trimester” in which she undergoes physical stabilization and emotional adjustment. This period is called the ________
a. afterbirth readjustment period
b. recuperative moratorium
c. melancholic period
d. postpartum period

0.75 points   

QUESTION 36

  1. Most likely, a woman who desires to terminate her pregnancy at the eighth week will undergo a ________
a. colostomy
b. vacuum aspiration
c. dilation and evacuation
d. hysterectomy

0.75 points   

QUESTION 37

  1. Which of the following is usually done surgically for male sterilization?
a. The prostate gland is removed
b. The urethra is blocked and tied off
c. Each vas deferens is cut and tied
d. The epididymis is tied off

0.75 points   

QUESTION 38

  1. Stimulation of the anal region using the tongue is known as
a. analingus
b. anallatio
c. fellatio
d. colonelangus

0.75 points   

QUESTION 39

  1. Atypical sexual behavior is sometimes used as a synonym for
a. nonconsensual sex
b. compulsive sex
c. sexual variation
d. paraphilia

0.75 points   

QUESTION 40

  1. A condition of pregnancy characterized by high blood pressure and edema along with protein in the urine is ________
a. toxoplasmosis
b. erythroblastosis fetalis
c. gestational hypertension
d. ectopic pregnancy

0.75 points   

QUESTION 41

  1. At what point during the development of the conceptus is a healthy fetus typically able to survive outside the mother’s womb?
a. at 5 months
b. at 6 months
c. at 3 months
d. at 7 months

0.75 points   

QUESTION 42

  1. During tubal ligation, laparoscopy is used to make an incision ________
a. at the top of the pubic hairline
b. through the vagina
c. at the edge of the navel
d. 4 inches below the rib cage

0.75 points   

QUESTION 43

  1. Identify a true statement about autoerotic asphyxia
a. It links strangulation with masturbation
b. It is characterized by a sexual interest in feces
c. It involves becoming sexually aroused by receiving enemas
d. It is characterized by a sexual focus on prepubescent children

0.75 points   

QUESTION 44

  1. Gestation refers to ________
a. intercourse
b. ovulation
c. menstruation
d. pregnancy

0.75 points   

QUESTION 45

  1. Second-stage labor begins when ________
a. the placenta is discharged
b. the baby begins to breathe on its own
c. the mucous plug is expelled from the cervix
d. the baby’s head moves into the birth canal

0.75 points   

QUESTION 46

  1. Which of the following are like plans that organize and direct one’s sexual behavior?
a. sexual rights
b. sexual scripts
c. sexual stereotypes
d. sexual posters

0.75 points   

QUESTION 47

  1. The amniocentesis procedure tests for ________
a. the position of the fetus
b. the stage of development of the fetus
c. fetal abnormalities
d. multiple fetuses

0.75 points   

QUESTION 48

  1. The pressing together of bodies with genital thrusting is called “dry humping” or
a. fondling
b. tribadism
c. groping
d. trephining

0.75 points   

QUESTION 49

  1. Although different oral contraceptives work in various ways, one thing they all have in common is ________
a. the formation of a barrier between the egg and the sperm
b. the prevention of the sperm’s entry into the uterus
c. the weakening and eventual destruction of the sperm
d. the creation of the same conditions as in pregnancy

0.75 points   

QUESTION 50

  1. Most sperm are viable in the female reproductive tract for ________
a. 72 hours
b. 12–48 hours
c. 6–12 hours
d. 4 hours

0.75 points   

QUESTION 51

  1. Which of the following is inserted into the vagina, must stay in place for at least 6 hours after the last intercourse, and can be worn for up to 48 hours?
a. a diaphragm
b. a sponge
c. a cervical cap
d. a female condom

0.75 points   

QUESTION 52

  1. Which of the following is primarily used to determine fetal age, position of the fetus and placenta, and possible developmental problems?
a. amniocentesis
b. alpha-fetoprotein test
c. chorionic villus sampling
d. ultrasound

0.75 points   

QUESTION 53

  1. Before lactation begins, a woman’s breast may secrete a yellowish liquid called ________, which is rich in protein and contains antibodies to help protect the baby from disease
a. cholesterol
b. colostrum
c. mammary exudate
d. pseudo-milk

0.75 points   

QUESTION 54

  1. Positive home pregnancy tests show if ________ is present
a. human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)
b. oxytocin
c. alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
d. progestin

0.75 points   

QUESTION 55

  1. A method of contraception that inhibits the release of the oocyte from the ovary is the ________
a. hormonal method
b. barrier method
c. spermicide method
d. oogenic method

0.75 points   

QUESTION 56

  1. An Apgar score measures ________
a. reflexes, color, respiration, and eye movement
b. heart rate, blood pressure, and birth weight
c. red blood cell count, respiration, birth weight, and reflexes
d. heart rate, respiration, skin color, reflexes, and muscle tone

0.75 points   

QUESTION 57

  1. During the ________ trimester, a pregnant woman can feel the fetus move
a. first
b. second
c. third
d. fourth

Part 3

QUESTION 1

  1. Which of the following statements is true of AIDS?
a. If a person’s CD4 count is above 200, it means that he or she has AIDS
b. AIDS is inherited
c. If a person is tested HIV-positive, it means that he or she has AIDS
d. AIDS is the final stage of HIV infection

0.75 points   

QUESTION 2

  1. When vaginal pain is caused by menopause-related symptoms, a possible solution is _______
a. vaginal dilators
b. sex therapy
c. surgery
d. lubricants

0.75 points   

QUESTION 3

  1. According to the American Cancer Society, who should have a mammogram every year?
a. all women
b. women in their childbearing years
c. women over the age of 40
d. lesbian women

0.75 points   

QUESTION 4

  1. In the context of sexual transmission, unprotected anal intercourse is extremely risky for the transmission of HIV because
a. the existence of semen and feces within the rectum can help the virus develop
b. the virus can enter the stomach through the digestive system
c. the lining of the rectum is thin and may allow the virus to enter the body
d. antibodies present in the rectum fail to bind to antigens and inactivate them

0.75 points   

QUESTION 5

  1. Which of the following racial and ethnic groups has been impacted most severely by HIV and AIDS?
a. Latinos
b. Asians
c. Whites
d. African Americans

0.75 points   

QUESTION 6

  1. In the context of breast cancer surgeries, the procedure in which a surgeon removes only the breast lump and some of the normal tissue around it is called a ________
a. lumpectomy
b. radical mastectomy
c. partial mastectomy
d. hysterectomy

0.75 points   

QUESTION 7

  1. Which of the following is true of testicular cancer in men?
a. The first sign is usually a painless lump or slight enlargement of the testicle
b. There is an increase in sensation, which is welcomed by many men
c. There is no definitive diagnostic test
d. The testicle is usually not the primary site for the cancer

0.75 points   

QUESTION 8

  1. Which of the following is a character trait of most people with eating disorders?
a. extremely high self-esteem
b. positive perceptions of self in relation to others
c. unreasonable demands for self-control
d. imperfectionism

0.75 points   

QUESTION 9

  1. Compared to heterosexual women, which of the following is true of cancer among lesbian women?
a. They are generally less vulnerable to all kinds of cancer, especially breast cancer
b. They are at greater risk for breast cancer because of their lack of exposure to testosterone
c. Those with breast cancer are more likely to detect their cancer in the early stages of the disease
d. They get less routine health care, including breast and cervical cancer screening tests

0.75 points   

QUESTION 10

  1. Which of the following is true about HIV tests?
a. A negative test result does not necessarily mean that one does not have HIV
b. An HIV test needs to be performed only under the supervision of a physician
c. An HIV test is a way to find out if one’s partner is infected
d. A positive HIV test result means one is AIDS affected

0.75 points   

QUESTION 11

  1. Most people who have genital human papillomavirus (HPV) infection _______
a. are males over the age of 40
b. have blisters on or around the genitals
c. have homosexual relations
d. do not know they have it

0.75 points   

QUESTION 12

  1. Which of the following therapeutic methods for the treatment of sexual function difficulties involves focusing on touch and the giving and receiving of pleasure?
a. masturbatory play
b. sensate focus
c. pleasure focus
d. directed fantasy

0.75 points   

QUESTION 13

  1. Gonorrhea is also known as _______
a. “the pus flute”
b. “the clap”
c. “the dribble”
d. “the crabs”

0.75 points   

QUESTION 14

  1. Which of the following does NOT have to be reported to the state health department in the United States?
a. gonorrhea
b. syphilis
c. chlamydia
d. genital herpes

0.75 points   

QUESTION 15

  1. Which of the following is a symptom of all forms of hepatitis?
a. genital warts
b. watery discharge from the penis or vagina
c. jaundice
d. skin rash

0.75 points   

QUESTION 16

  1. Which of the following is a treatment for people infected with HIV?
a. phototherapy
b. macrophagic cell enlargement therapy
c. antiretroviral therapy
d. xenotransplantation

0.75 points   

QUESTION 17

  1. Gonorrhea is treated through _______
a. cryosurgery
b. antibiotics
c. hot compresses
d. radiation therapy

0.75 points   

QUESTION 18

  1. About 79 million people in the United States are infected with ________, accounting for one-third of all new STIs
a. hepatitis virus
b. genital herpes virus
c. genital human papillomavirus (HPV)
d. human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

0.75 points   

QUESTION 19

  1. What percentage of breast lumps are NOT cancerous?
a. 20–25 percent
b. 45–50 percent
c. 60–65 percent
d. 75–80 percent

0.75 points   

QUESTION 20

  1. Genital candidiasis is caused by an _______
a. overgrowth of a bacteria normally present in the vagina
b. infection of the endometrial tissue by a sexually transmitted virus
c. overgrowth of a fungus normally present in the vagina
d. infection of the liver by a sexually transmitted fungus

0.75 points   

QUESTION 21

  1. The second leading cause of cancer deaths in women is ________
a. cervical cancer
b. breast cancer
c. ovarian cancer
d. endometrial cancer

0.75 points   

QUESTION 22

  1. The first level in the PLISSIT model involves _______
a. giving limited information
b. making specific suggestions
c. undergoing intensive therapy
d. giving permission

0.75 points   

QUESTION 23

  1. Which of the following is a way in which HIV can be transmitted?
a. through closed-mouth kissing
b. through sharing sex toys
c. through sharing plates and glasses
d. through hugging and shaking hands

0.75 points   

QUESTION 24

  1. Which of the following constitutes a factor that increases the risk for breast cancer?
a. being physically very active
b. having dense breasts
c. multiple sexual partners
d. irregular menstrual periods

0.75 points   

QUESTION 25

  1. Of the following sexual behaviors which is considered to have the lowest risk of contracting HIV?
a. oral sex
b. heterosexual anal sex
c. vaginal sex
d. homosexual anal sex

0.75 points   

QUESTION 26

  1. Substances that purport to increase sexual desire or improve sexual function are known as _______
a. aphrodisiacs
b. potentiaters
c. stimulants
d. disinhibitors

0.75 points   

QUESTION 27

  1. The common term “yeast infection” refers to _______
a. scabies
b. trichomoniasis
c. bacterial vaginosis
d. genital candidiasis

0.75 points   

QUESTION 28

  1. Which of the following is a sex-related problem for women with diabetes?
a. infertility
b. increased sexual interest and desire
c. vaginal dryness
d. absence of vaginal orgasm

0.75 points   

QUESTION 29

  1. The most prominent symptom of pubic lice infestation is _______
a. dry skin
b. shooting pain in the groin
c. intense itching
d. a rapidly spreading rash in the pubic area

0.75 points   

QUESTION 30

  1. After low sexual desire, the most common sexual dysfunction seen by sex therapists among females is _______
a. vaginismus
b. dyspareunia
c. female orgasmic disorder
d. sexual aversion disorder

0.75 points   

QUESTION 31

  1. The first symptom of syphilis is _______
a. rashes
b. ulcers in the endocrine glands
c. descending paralysis
d. the appearance of a chancre

0.75 points   

QUESTION 32

  1. The most common bacterial STI and most commonly reported bacterial infectious disease in the United States is _______
a. gonorrhea
b. syphilis
c. acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
d. chlamydia

0.75 points   

QUESTION 33

  1. More than 95 percent of the time, uterine cancer involves the _______
a. cervix
b. endometrium
c. fundus
d. myometrium

0.75 points   

QUESTION 34

  1. The most reliable means of early detection of cervical cancer is the _______
a. Wasserman test
b. Pap test or Pap smear
c. cervical os test
d. cervical patency test

0.75 points   

QUESTION 35

  1. At first, AIDS within the United States seemed to be confined principally to three groups: gay men, Haitians, and people with
a. hemophilia
b. neurocognitive disorders
c. eating disorders
d. hemochromatosis

0.75 points   

QUESTION 36

  1. The sexual rights of people with disabilities include all of the following EXCEPT the right to _______
a. privacy
b. sexual expression
c. choose one’s marital status
d. free medical care and sex counseling

0.75 points   

QUESTION 37

  1. The process by which a person develops antibodies is called
a. anastalsis
b. seroconversion
c. insemination
d. opsonization

0.75 points   

QUESTION 38

  1. AIDS stands for
a. altered immune defense system
b. acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
c. atypical immunodefense syndrome
d. asymptomatic immune disorder

0.75 points   

QUESTION 39

  1. Which one of the following is helpful in the treatment of early ejaculation?
a. the use of dilators
b. rear entry coitus
c. erotic fantasy
d. the squeeze technique

0.75 points   

QUESTION 40

  1. Which of the following is a principal symptom of secondary syphilis?
a. an unusual discharge from the penis or vagina
b. a skin rash that neither itches nor hurts
c. a painless sore
d. swollen lymph nodes

0.75 points   

QUESTION 41

  1. Internalized homophobia can be defined as _______
a. a fear of emotional intimacy with the same sex
b. a fear of physical intimacy with the same sex
c. self-hatred because of one’s homosexuality
d. homosexuals’ hatred toward the opposite sex

0.75 points   

QUESTION 42

  1. Which of the following factors is associated with male hypoactive sexual desire disorder?
a. alcohol use
b. high self-confidence
c. self-worship
d. anodyspareunia

0.75 points   

QUESTION 43

  1. Damage in the late stages of syphilis, if left untreated, can include _______
a. infertility
b. death
c. prostate cancer
d. genital cancers

0.75 points   

QUESTION 44

  1. Which of the following is the most difficult cancer to diagnose in women because there are no symptoms in the early stages?
a. breast cancer
b. vaginal cancer
c. cervical cancer
d. ovarian cancer

0.75 points   

QUESTION 45

  1. One of the reasons HIV is difficult to destroy once it has infected a person is
a. the virus has the tendency to mutate
b. the virus can thrive even outside the host
c. antibodies are attracted to GP 120 in HIV
d. the virus can propel itself independently in the host

0.75 points   

QUESTION 46

  1. In men, diabetes contributes to ________
a. difficulty in achieving an erection
b. sterility
c. increased sexual desire
d. development of the breasts

0.75 points   

QUESTION 47

  1. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is also known as _______
a. the clap
b. epididymitis
c. yeast infection
d. salpingitis

0.75 points   

QUESTION 48

  1. The number-one sexual function problem of American couples is _______
a. inhibited sexual desire
b. hypersexual disorder
c. substance-induced sexual dysfunction
d. orgasmic disorder

0.75 points   

QUESTION 49

  1. The term “frigid” has been replaced with the less prejudicial description _______
a. sensate deficit disorder
b. female sexual arousal disorder
c. female sexual dysphoria
d. arousal aversion disorder

0.75 points   

QUESTION 50

  1. A state of physical, emotional, mental, and social well-being related to sexuality is called _______
a. sexual constancy
b. sexual normality
c. sexual health
d. sexual orientation

0.75 points   

QUESTION 51

  1. Match each condition with it’s corresponding description
         –           A.           B.           C.           D.           E. Modern term for impotence
         –           A.           B.           C.           D.           E. pain due to muscle spasms around the vagina whenever vaginal penetration is attempted
         –           A.           B.           C.           D.           E. severe curvature of the penis and pain during intercourse
         –           A.           B.           C.           D.           E. pain experienced during anal intercourse
         –           A.           B.           C.           D.           E. prolonged and painful erections because blood is unable to drain from the penis
A. Peyronie’s disease
B. vaginismus
C. erectile disorder
D. anodyspareunia
E. priapism

5 points   

QUESTION 52

  1. Which of the following is NOT a consequence of untreated chlamydia?
a. epididymitis
b. infertility
c. acute arthritis
d. candidiasis

0.75 points   

QUESTION 53

  1. How did scientific awareness of HIV begin?
a. The United Nations alerted the world about an epidemic in developing countries
b. Gay men protested the lack of adequate funding for research on all sexually transmitted infections (STIs)
c. Physicians noted rare diseases in healthy young men in major U.S. cities
d. The same bacteria causing other sexually transmitted infections (STIs) were found to have mutated into a new form

0.75 points   

QUESTION 54

  1. Due to the fact that chlamydia is often asymptomatic, health care professionals recommend that sexually active persons be checked for it every _______
a. 3 to 4 weeks
b. 3 to 6 months
c. year
d. 2 years

0.75 points   

QUESTION 55

  1. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is commonly associated with _______
a. chlamydia and gonorrhea
b. human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and cystitis
c. candidiasis and herpes
d. pubic lice and scabies

0.75 points   

QUESTION 56

  1. Which of the following is NOT an indicator of prostate cancer?
a. a weak stream during urination
b. difficulty holding back urination
c. high blood pressure
d. continuing pain in the lower back

0.75 points   

QUESTION 57

  1. An inflammation of the cervix is called _______
a. cervicitis
b. cervical edema
c. pelvic inflammatory disease
d. genital candidiasis

0.75 points   

QUESTION 58

  1. The purpose of the Tuskegee syphilis study was to _______
a. create a syphilis epidemic and observe the rates of transmission among Blacks
b. determine if there were racial differences in the developmental course of syphilis
c. test new drugs in the treatment of syphilis
d. attempt to eradicate the disease

0.75 points   

QUESTION 59

  1. Cystitis is a(n) _______
a. bladder infection caused by bacteria entering the urinary tract
b. inflammation of the vaginal wall caused by vigorous sexual intercourse
c. vaginal infection caused by a sexually transmitted virus
d. inflammation of the cervix caused by irregular menstrual periods

0.75 points   

QUESTION 60

  1. Which of the following is a direct route of HIV transmission?
a. drinking
b. ingesting drugs
c. injecting drugs
d. smoking

0.75 points   

QUESTION 61

  1. The surgical removal of a woman’s uterus in order to treat some cancers or severe gynecological problems is called a _______
a. lumpectomy
b. partial mastectomy
c. hysterectomy
d. mastectomy

0.75 points   

 

Part 4.

QUESTION 1

  1. Which of the following hormones stimulates sperm production in the testes?
a. luteinizing hormone (LH)
b. follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
c. human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
d. gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)

0.5 points   

QUESTION 2

  1. When women do not menstruate for reasons other than aging, the condition is called
a. dysmenorrhea
b. menarche
c. menorrhagia
d. amenorrhea

0.5 points   

QUESTION 3

  1. According to Sigmund Freud, girls and boys develop feminine and masculine identities, respectively, when they
a. begin to desire their parent of the opposite sex
b. relinquish their desire for the other-sex parent and begin to identify with their same-sex parent
c. begin to express their libido in socially acceptable ways
d. reach the phallic stage of psychosexual development

0.5 points   

QUESTION 4

  1. The highly successful approach to treatment of sexual problems that was developed by Masters and Johnson was based on
a. behavioral therapy
b. sex education
c. drug therapy
d. Freudian therapy

0.5 points   

QUESTION 5

  1. The ________ encircles the urethra just below the urinary bladder and produces about 30% of the seminal fluid that nourishes and transports sperm
a. seminal vesicles
b. prostate gland
c. epididymis
d. frenulum

0.5 points   

QUESTION 6

  1. The nineteenth-century Victorian Americans believed that
a. men had only reproductive desires
b. male sexuality was dangerous, uncontrolled, and animal-like
c. a man’s duty was to tame a woman’s sexual impulses
d. men had to teach their wives to enjoy sexual relations

0.5 points   

QUESTION 7

  1. The development of Kinsey’s Heterosexual-Homosexual Rating Scale was an attempt to
a. represent a proportion of an individual’s sexual behaviors with the same or other sex
b. evaluate the masculinity and femininity of Kinsey’s subjects
c. classify sexual behaviors in terms of their normality and abnormality
d. measure the frequency of autoerotic behavior among subjects of different ages

0.5 points   

QUESTION 8

  1. ________ is the hormone that triggers the development of secondary sex characteristics in men
a. Testosterone
b. Estrogen
c. Oxytocin
d. Relaxin

0.5 points   

QUESTION 9

  1. Which of the following sexual behaviors is evaluated as harmful to oneself?
a. masturbating while watching one’s partner seductively undress
b. having sexual intercourse in an elevator
c. masturbatory asphyxia
d. voyeurism

0.5 points   

QUESTION 10

  1. Fertilization normally takes place in the
a. clitoris
b. crus
c. fallopian tube
d. vagina

0.5 points   

QUESTION 11

  1. Women’s rights, relationship status, and individual self-expression and autonomy were challenged during the ________
a. gender revolution
b. Victorian revolution
c. American revolution
d. sexual revolution

0.5 points   

QUESTION 12

  1. Franz is diagnosed with retrograde ejaculation. This means that
a. his sperm count is getting low and he may be infertile
b. he is unable to ejaculate during intercourse
c. he is unable to ejaculate and experience orgasm at the same time
d. his semen passes into his bladder rather than out of his urethral opening

0.5 points   

QUESTION 13

  1. Ovulation is the
a. sloughing off of the endometrium in the uterus
b. release of oocyte upon the rupturing of a Graafian follicle
c. production of milk by alveoli after childbirth
d. change of the vaginal environment by cervical secretions

0.5 points   

QUESTION 14

  1. A major reason for the lack of popularity of Freud’s theory of sexuality among American sex researchers is
a. the emphasis on unconscious forces such as libido
b. his overemphasis on adolescent and adult sexual expression
c. the fact that there were no empirical data to support his ideas
d. his view that excessive masturbation is the root of many personality problems

0.5 points   

QUESTION 15

  1. Normally, the amount of semen that is ejaculated at one time is about
a. 10 fluid ounces
b. 3 fluid ounces
c. 5 liters
d. 1 teaspoonful

0.5 points   

QUESTION 16

  1. The sole function of the clitoris is
a. sexual arousal
b. secretion of lubricants
c. urination
d. reproduction

0.5 points   

QUESTION 17

  1. Serious pain sufficient to limit a woman’s activities before or during the woman’s menstrual cycle is called
a. menorrhagia
b. dyspareunia
c. amenorrhea
d. dysmenorrhea

0.5 points   

QUESTION 18

  1. In ancient Greece, the male-male relationship was based on
a. strictly sexual exchanges of favors
b. the friendship of courtesans
c. love and reciprocity
d. power and companionship

0.5 points   

QUESTION 19

  1. A triangular area of sensitive skin that attaches the glans to the foreskin is called the
a. vas deferens
b. frenulum
c. perineum
d. crura

0.5 points   

QUESTION 20

  1. Stereotypical beliefs
a. are surprisingly flexible
b. are the same across different cultures
c. are based on religious beliefs
d. are resistant to change

0.5 points   

QUESTION 21

  1. Which of the following is true of “two-spirits”?
a. They convey their gender through sexual practices
b. They are viewed as perverted and untrustworthy in the South Asian society
c. They were respected as fundamental components of the Native American cultures
d. The U.S. government and missionaries supported American Indian two-spirits

0.5 points   

QUESTION 22

  1. The sex researcher who wrote Psychopathia Sexualis was
a. Sigmund Freud
b. Havelock Ellis
c. Richard von Krafft-Ebing
d. Alfred Kinsey

0.5 points   

QUESTION 23

  1. Everyday exposure to sexual content in mainstream media often leads to:
a. increased levels of body dissatisfaction
b. a positive view of women’s competence, morality, and humanity
c. intolerance of sexual violence against women
d. withdrawal from sexist beliefs

0.5 points   

QUESTION 24

  1. Which of the following is an outcome of the phallic stage of psychosexual development in which little girls sexually desire their fathers?
a. an Oedipal complex
b. an Electra complex
c. the anal phase
d. the latency phase

0.5 points   

QUESTION 25

Correctly label the female reproductive system: 6. 7. 8.

  1. 10.11. 12.
  2. 14.15. .

NOTE: #8, 10, and 12 are not part of the reproductive system.

5 points   

QUESTION 26

  1. In ancient Greece, the educated slaves who provided sexual pleasure to men were known as ________
a. shamans
b. muxas
c. hetaerae
d. hijra

0.5 points   

QUESTION 27

  1. In which culture is a young adolescent boy given instructions about how to please a girl and bring her to orgasm?
a. the Mangaia
b. the Dani
c. the ancient Greeks
d. the Victorians

0.5 points   

QUESTION 28

  1. The surgical removal of the foreskin of the penis is called
a. infibulation
b. circumcision
c. hysterectomy
d. vasectomy

0.5 points   

QUESTION 29

  1. The egg is viable for about ________ hours
a. 8
b. 24
c. 48
d. 72

0.5 points   

QUESTION 30

  1. According to psychologist Leonore Tiefer, which of the following statements is true of statistically “normal” behavior?
a. Behaviors that replicate successful personalities are abnormal
b. Behaviors that are similar to one’s own are considered normal
c. Behaviors that conform with religious teachings are normal
d. Behaviors that are not common are considered abnormal

0.5 points   

QUESTION 31

  1. It is believed that the purpose of the secretions of the Cowper’s glands is to
a. maintain the erection of the penis until ejaculation
b. buffer the acidic environment within the urethra
c. maintain optimal testosterone levels
d. help lubricate the shaft during masturbation

0.5 points   

QUESTION 32

  1. Which of the following statements is true of sexual orientation?
a. It involves creating, sharing, and forwarding sexually suggestive images
b. It is a complex, multidimensional construct composed of sexual identity, attraction, and behavior
c. It is the set of roles, behaviors, activities, and attributes that a society considers appropriate for men and women
d. It affects the potential for becoming sexually aroused and for engaging in sexual intercourse

0.5 points   

QUESTION 33

  1. Havelock Ellis viewed the so-called abnormal sexual behaviors as
a. the result of excessive autoeroticism
b. a result of moral degeneracy and inferior genetic inheritance
c. sexual instincts that have been repressed too long
d. exaggerations of normal sexual behavior

0.5 points   

QUESTION 34

  1. About ________ sperm arrive in the fallopian tubes after a single ejaculation during intercourse?
a. 1,000
b. 5,000
c. 50,000
d. 1.5 million

0.5 points   

QUESTION 35

  1. The most expansive nationally representative study of sexual and sexual-health behaviors, published in 2010, is called
a. the National Survey of Sexual Health and Behavior
b. the National Sexual Health and Social Life Survey
c. the National Assessment of Adolescent Sexual Health and Behavior
d. the National Survey of Family Growth

0.5 points   

QUESTION 36

 

Correctly label the male reproductive system: 1.   2. SKIP  3. 

  1. 5. 6. 7.
  2. 9. 10. 11.  

NOTE: #2 and #9 are not part of the reproductive system

5 points   

QUESTION 37

  1. Which of the following male structures is homologous with the labia majora in females?
a. the scrotum
b. the glans penis
c. the corpus spongiosum
d. the penile shaft

0.5 points   

QUESTION 38

  1. According to Sigmund Freud, the fear that a phallic-stage boy feels because of his desires toward his mother leads to
a. neurosis
b. penis envy
c. a suppressed libido
d. castration anxiety

0.5 points   

QUESTION 39

  1. A girl’s first menstruation is known as ________.
a. menarche
b. menstrual synchrony
c. menopause
d. dysmenorrhea

0.5 points   

QUESTION 40

  1. Because human sexual activity has such diversity, most sex researchers have advocated that in place of such terms as normal/abnormal or natural/unnatural, we use the term
a. sexual deviancy
b. sexual variation
c. sexual morality
d. sexual anomaly

0.5 points   

QUESTION 41

  1. Why was the 1973 removal of homosexuality from the DSM-II (Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders) significant?
a. It meant that there was nothing wrong with homosexuality and there was no need for therapy to cure it
b. It supported the idea that homosexuality was due to poor parenting and, therefore, was not a choice made by individuals
c. It supported the theories of Ulrichs and Hirschfeld
d. It demonstrated that the life experiences and values of homosexuals were no different from those of heterosexuals

0.5 points   

QUESTION 42

  1. What does information about the ancient Grecians and the Sambians suggest about sexual orientation?
a. Exposure to, or participation in, same-sex sexual behavior at a young age determines a person’s sexual orientation for life
b. One’s attractions are biologically based
c. Culture can give same-sex sexual behavior very different social and personal significance
d. Some cultures encourage the development of transsexuals

0.5 points   

QUESTION 43

  1. How did Masters and Johnson collect data used to detail human sexual response?
a. oral interviews
b. written surveys
c. correlations
d. observation and direct measurement

0.5 points   

QUESTION 44

Correctly label the female reproductive system: 1. 2.  3.  4.  and 5. .

2.5 points   

QUESTION 45

  1. Which of the following is true about the hymen in a woman’s sexual anatomy?
a. If a woman’s hymen is no longer intact, then she is not a virgin
b. The reason women with intact hymens cannot use a tampon is that there is no opening in the hymen
c. The only true test of virginity can be performed by looking at a woman’s cervix
d. The hymen can rupture by something that does not involve sexual behavior

0.5 points   

QUESTION 46

  1. Which of the following statements is true according to Magnus Hirschfeld’s research findings about homosexuality?
a. Homosexual men have a distinctive feminine quality
b. Homosexuality is the result of the hormonal development of inborn traits
c. Homosexuality is influenced by cultural and religious teachings
d. Homosexual men and heterosexual men are similar in personality characteristics

0.5 points   

QUESTION 47

  1. The corpus spongiosum
a. secretes a thick, clear, alkaline mucus just prior to ejaculation
b. fills with blood during arousal and causes an erection
c. nourishes and transports the mature sperm
d. aids in the production of sperm and hormones

0.5 points   

QUESTION 48

 

Correctly label the male reproductive system: 12.  13.  

  1. 15.  16. 17.
  2. 19.

NOTE: #12 is not part of the reproductive system

4 points   

QUESTION 49

  1. Which of the following is a suggestion made by the American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) with regard to viewing television and music videos?
a. Children must avoid viewing news broadcast as it contains political propaganda
b. Parents must teach young people to balance media use with other healthy behaviors
c. Schools must discourage children from viewing music videos
d. Parents must ensure that children below the age of 5 are exposed to cartoons

0.5 points   

QUESTION 50

  1. Which statement best reflects the views of Havelock Ellis regarding the nature of female sexuality?
a. Women are naturally asexual, and if they are interested in sex, it is merely as a way to achieve pregnancy
b. Women’s animal lusts cause men to lose control and engage in intercourse to the point of weakness and illness
c. Women have sexual desires no less intense than those of men
d. Women experience themselves as anatomically defective without a penis and compensate for it by devoting themselves to their husband and children

0.5 points   

QUESTION 51

  1. According to Mangaia of Polynesia culture, if a woman is not sexually satisfied by her male partner, which of the following is a likely consequence?
a. The woman learns to be content with her partner’s skills
b. The woman leaves her partner and ruins his reputation
c. The woman has an extramarital affair
d. The woman helps her partner improve his lovemaking skills

0.5 points   

QUESTION 52

  1. The position of most major mental health organizations regarding “reparative” therapy for homosexuality is that it should
a. be initiated whenever consent is given by the individual
b. not be done
c. always be attempted
d. be undertaken for gay men but not lesbian women

0.5 points   

QUESTION 53

  1. Ethnocentrism is reinforced by
a. government-sponsored research
b. the objective study of other cultures
c. the globalization efforts of countries
d. opinions, biases, and stereotypes about other cultures

0.5 points   

QUESTION 54

  1. Why was the research of Evelyn Hooker important?
She demonstrated that women reached orgasms primarily through stimulation of the clitoris
She emphasized the need for more research on the sexual behavior of ethnic minority groups
She showed that gay men could not be distinguished from heterosexual men on the basis of personality characteristics
She analyzed the power aspect of relationships between the sexes

0.5 points   

QUESTION 55

  1. In which of the following cultures is sex considered relatively unimportant?
a. the Mangaia
b. the Dani
c. the Sambia
d. the Victorians

0.5 points   

QUESTION 56

  1. The terms “homosexuality” and “heterosexuality” were coined by
a. Evelyn Hooker
b. Magnus Hirschfeld
c. K. H. Ulrichs
d. Karl Maria Kertbeny

0.5 points   

QUESTION 57

  1. Spermatogenesis takes place within the
a. scrotum
b. crura
c. seminiferous tubules
d. vas deferens

0.5 points   

QUESTION 58

  1. An egocentric fallacy is the mistaken belief that
a. one’s sexual behavior is superior to others
b. one’s intellectual ability is superior to others
c. one’s own values are held by others
d. one’s values are mostly disagreed with by others

0.5 points   

QUESTION 59

  1. In which culture do mothers and fathers go through 5 years of sexual abstinence after the birth of a child?
a. the Mangaia
b. the Dani
c. the Greeks
d. the Sambians

0.5 points   

QUESTION 60

  1. During sexual arousal, a small amount of moisture is secreted at the vaginal opening by the ________ glands
a. Bartholin’s
b. Cowper’s
c. pubic sweat
d. Bentham’s

0.5 points   

QUESTION 61

  1. Which governmental regulation of sexual material on the Internet was declared a violation of freedom of speech?
a. The Defense of Marriage Act
b. The Communications Decency Act
c. The Comstock Act
d. The Limited Free Speech Amendment

0.5 points   

QUESTION 62

  1. What led to the loss of dignity and place in society of two-spirit people among the Native Americans?
a. The Native Americans disliked these individuals as they often expressed their gender through their sexual practices.
b. European colonization and persecution by the church to eradicate these individuals resulted in the two-spirit community being viewed as perverted, untraditional, and untrustworthy.
c. The French took over the Native Americans to specifically target homosexuals and two-spirit people because they functioned against the laws of nature.
d. The Russian invasion aimed to bring about a religious reformation of the Native Americans, and all those who opposed this change were persecuted.

0.5 points   

QUESTION 63

  1. According to the declaration of sexual rights, forced sterilization is illegal as it violates

 

a. the right to enjoy the benefits of scientific progress and its application
b. the right to participation in public and political life
c. the right to the highest attainable standard of health, including sexual health, with the possibility of pleasurable, satisfying, and safe sexual experiences
d. the right to be free from torture and cruel, inhumane, or degrading treatment or punishment

0.5 points   

QUESTION 64

  1. Who among the following believes that women have no sexual desire, only reproductive desire, but men have insatiable sexual appetites?
a. the Mangaia of Polynesia
b. the Dani from New Guinea
c. African Asians
d. Victorian Americans

0.5 points   

QUESTION 65

  1. Which of the following statements was one of William Masters and Virginia Johnson’s research findings?
a. Clitoral orgasm is physically and psychologically inferior to vaginal orgasms
b. Male and female sexual responses are very similar
c. Unlike women, men experience orgasm during masturbation
d. Women experience orgasm primarily through vaginal stimulation

0.5 points   

QUESTION 66

  1. The menstrual phase is characterized by the shedding of
a. nerve tissue
b. epithelial tissue
c. endometrial tissue
d. connective tissue

0.5 points   

QUESTION 67

  1. The expression “blue balls” refers to
a. sexually insatiable men
b. penises wounded during intromission
c. depression or “blues” that can occur after having rough sexual intercourse
d. discomfort in the testes from intense sexual arousal without ejaculation

0.5 points   

QUESTION 68

  1. According to Sigmund Freud, the part of the body upon which eroticism is focused during the first stage of psychosexual development is the
a. abdomen
b. genitals
c. anus
d. mouth

0.5 points   

QUESTION 69

  1. Normal sexual behavior is that which
a. reflects the average or median behavior of a group
b. is supported by religious teachings
c. reflects the preferences of those of high status in a society
d. leads to successful reproduction

0.5 points   

QUESTION 70

  1. One of the most important findings in Kinsey’s work was that
a. children had sexual thoughts and experiences
b. a vast majority of women masturbated several times a day
c. there was extraordinary diversity in sexual behavior
d. few people understood or used contraceptive devices

0.5 points   

QUESTION 71

  1. In order for an embryo to develop male genitals, the embryo must
a. receive hormonal and genetic signals
b. have a slightly longer gestation period
c. have a shorter gestation period
d. first produce sperm

0.5 points   

 

 

Write a paragraph about the facility the CMA works in, who makes up the medical team? What type of business is it? Is the CMA involved in administrative duties, if so, what duties, or are they involved in direct patient care using clinical skills?

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Medical Assisting Interview

1. If you do not know a Medical Assistant personally, contact a medical office and ask to speak to the office manager/administrator. Identify yourself as a Kirkwood Community College student in
the Administrative Medical Office Procedures class and you have an assignment to conduct an interview with a CMA. Ask if they have a staff member that they feel would be able to assist in your project. Interviews may be completed in person, Zoom, or via phone. If you are having issues with scheduling an interview, talk to me.

2. If you are meeting in person, wear casual business dress (dress pants, blouse, and sweater) and appropriate shoes. No tennis shoes, sweats, or blue jeans. The same guidance should be used if interviewing via Zoom. Remember you are representing KCC and the medical assistant profession!

3. Your paper must be typed, using Times New Roman 12 font, double spaced. You must use three references from your text book in your paper. Your paper must consist of a minimum of four paragraphs. Write a paragraph about the facility the CMA works in, who makes up the medical team? What type of business is it? Is the CMA involved in administrative duties, if so, what duties, or are they involved in direct patient care using clinical skills? The rest of the paper is yours to discuss your takeaways and learnings.

Based upon the topic of creating a climate of change, what recommendations did the primer provide to carry that concept out to practice? The primer indicated that: “Experience has shown that one key success factor in communicating with physicians is identifying and utilizing a physician champion.” Based upon your understanding of the primer why would utilizing a physician champion assist with project success?

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Managing Change

FIRST SECTION: 1 PARAGRAPH:
At the end of chapter 3 in Health Care Systems Engineering, there are a number of “Questions and Learning Activities.” For this module’s self-assessment, answer question #3 in at least one paragraph.

SECOND SECTION: 2 PARAGRAPHS:
Based upon the readings from Systems Engineering: Principles and Practice, in your own words, describe the four (4) basic steps of the needs analysis. Provide a description of each step.
In addition, define the term “performance requirement validation” and provide an example from a health care system of your choice. For example, “The system is a lab specimen collection process where performance requirements might be defined as: specimens are collected from patients on the nursing unit by 6:00 am and transported to the lab no later than 9:00am daily.” Do not use this example.

THIRD SECTION 2 paragraphs:
Using the article Change management in EHR Adoption.
1. Based upon the topic of creating a climate of change, what recommendations did the primer provide to carry that concept out to practice?
2. The primer indicated that: “Experience has shown that one key success factor in communicating with physicians is identifying and utilizing a physician champion.” Based upon your understanding of the primer why would utilizing a physician champion assist with project success?

https://www.healthit.gov/sites/default/files/playbook/pdf/change-management-ehr-implemention.pdf

Using the article Managing Change: An Overview, answer the following question:

Based upon the readings and supplied checklist templates, create your own one-page Go-Live checklist. Be creative and use the supplied resources or others you might locate to assist in drafting your “Go live” checklist.

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Go live checklist

https://edhub.ama-assn.org/steps-forward/module/2702512

A Go-Live checklist is a critical tool for ensuring the success of any project. The checklist provides a framework to ensure that all critical elements are addressed prior an implementation (especially EHR implementations). For this module’s assignment, you will be creating a Go-Live checklist for your EHR implementation. As a first step in understanding the creation of your checklist please review the following materials:
1. AMA web site: Electronic Health Record Implementation Module.
2. Read the following article: Electronic Health Record (EHR) Implementation GO-LIVE Planning Checklist.

Directions
Based upon the readings and supplied checklist templates, create your own one-page Go-Live checklist that addresses the following areas:
1. Staff
2. Hardware
3. Down Time Procedures
In your checklist make sure you list the sequence of how you would like your “Go Live” to occur. For example:
1. Two weeks prior to “Go Live”: Ensure all staff have met training requirements
2. One week prior to “Go Live”: All equipment has been tested and meets specification for operating with the EHR.

Feel free to be creative and use the supplied resources or others you might locate to assist in drafting your “Go live” checklist. Remember to ask your instructor for additional information to bridge any gaps that might exist.

Case Study: (Use this project case study to fill out your PMP document).
The Waverly Family Health services has decided to implement an electronic health record (EHR). They have decided to implement a web-based EHR called Practice Fusion http://www.practicefusion.com. You will need to review the website to understand about the product. You may sign up for free access to their product to learn more and answer questions you might have about the product (see also provided youtube videos about Practice Fusion).
The clinic has no prior experience implementing an EHR, but they feel assured they can accomplish a web install and system conversion (migrating from paper charts to digital content) using the skill of their staff and providers. Hardware is already provided. The following is baseline information on the clinic and project resource allocation:

Budget
The clinic acquired a small business development loan on their American Express Card business account in the amount of $40,000.00 for the entire project. This includes all startup costs, labor, training, and “unforeseen costs.”

Staff
The following is a breakdown of staff who will need EHR access and new hardware to run the EHR:
Dr. Waverly, clinic owner and medical director (*Key stakeholder)
Dr. Jones, physician and clinic partner (*Key stakeholder)
Mrs. Johnson, physician’s assistant (will function as project team member)
Mrs. Wright, MSN, NP, nurse practitioner [Project team member (has previous EHR install experience)]
Mrs. Jones, clinic director (*Key stakeholder)
Ms. Felps, front office clerk (Project team member)
Ms. Smith MA, back office medical assistant (Project team member)
Mr. Lawrence, clinic accounts and billing [Project team member (has I.T experience)]

You have 6 months to complete the project.

Environment Assessment Information:
The clinic has a high speed T-line, which provides internet access with Wi-Fi access throughout the clinic. There is ample hardware throughout the clinic. Each clinic exam room (there are 4) has a workstation consisting of a Dell “all-in-one” desktop with 8GB of ram and Intel i7 processor, and a 23-inch screen. The units are wall mounted and the monitor is on an articulated arm allowing the patient to see the screen when the clinician wants to share information. Each of the Medical Assistants (MAs), front office clerk, biller and directors have similar work stations. The workstation configurations meet the minimum standards for utilizing the web-based EHR.

Identify political issues in the scenario. Discuss how you would effectively and ethically handle the situation. Apply two (2) conflict management skills to resolve issues and build team alliances that support your decisions based on how you handled the situation(s).

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HA405-3: Evaluate a political issue in a health care scenario.

GEL-7.02: Apply ethical reasoning to ethical issues within the field of Health Sciences.

PC-1.3: Apply conflict management skills to resolve issues and/or build team alliances.

In this module, you will identify and evaluate the political health care issue facing healthcare administrators. In a 2-page summary, you will identify political issues in the scenario below and discuss how you would effectively and ethically handle the situation(s). Then apply two (2) conflict management skills you would use to resolve issues and/or build team alliances based on those decisions. Include two (2) academic references and submit your assignment in APA format.

Scenario: You are the healthcare administrator of a nursing home. You are informed by your Admissions Director that a new memory-impaired resident has been admitted into your long-term care unit. The staff is concerned about the involvement of family with your resident. Family members from out-of-town arrived and expressed concern about your resident’s do not resuscitate (DNR) orders which were authorized by the Power of Attorney of another family member. A quarrel erupts in the nursing home with family members voicing their opinions loudly. You arrive on the scene and are immediately told by the visiting family member, “Do you know who I am? I am a supervisor for the Department of Health and Human Services and will not hesitate to have your facility surveyed for noncompliance.” What do you do?

Requirements:

Identify political issues in the scenario.
Discuss how you would effectively and ethically handle the situation.
Apply two (2) conflict management skills to resolve issues and build team alliances that support your decisions based on how you handled the situation(s).
Include two (2) academic references.
Minimum Submission Requirements

Describe the issue and why and how it poses an ethical dilemma for healthcare providers and healthcare organizations? What ethical principle(s) would be applicable to the dilemma? Describe the ethical decision-making steps used to come to an ethical decision? With whom would a healthcare professional consult in coming to a decision?

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Organ tranplantion and artificial organs

Ethical dilemmas are those where there is neither an easy answer nor a decision that is absolutely the right one. Healthcare professionals must deal with these challenges based on their training and knowledge of ethical principles and decision making. Choose an ethical dilemma from the list below and answer the questions that follow.

Organ transplantation and artificial organs

Describe the issue and why and how it poses an ethical dilemma for healthcare providers and healthcare organizations?

What ethical principle(s) would be applicable to the dilemma?

Describe the ethical decision-making steps used to come to an ethical decision?

With whom would a healthcare professional consult in coming to a decision?

How are your personal values challenged? What would be a personal bias or conflict of interest in resolving this dilemma?

Discuss how activity-based costing can be used to mitigate rising costs and the change in patient perception. Use research to support your statement in your few paragraphs original discussion post

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HCAD 640 WK 6 Departmental Costing and Cost Allocation + Service Line Costing & Pricing

Cost overruns and extraordinary spending by healthcare organizations harm the sustainability of the healthcare organization. Through activity-based costing (ABC), the healthcare industry is working to combat disproportionally rising costs to GDP in the United States (HealthCatalyst, 2018).

Read Service Lines and Activity-Based Costing Reveal True Cost of Care for UPMC, available at:

https://www.healthcatalyst.com/success_stories/activity-based-costing-in-healthcare-upmc and discuss how activity-based costing can be used to mitigate rising costs and the change in patient perception. Use research to support your statement in your few paragraphs original discussion post